As a good little Marxist, I understand that social identity is constructed by the dominant ideology (hegemony, y'all), and that cultural relativism is required (the notion of 'gay' in a Western sense has not always been the sense in other countries - in fact, well within recorded history is when a shift can be perceived...and, for that matter, the notion of 'gay' as a separate identity is also pretty new over here...the notion of a private life dates from around the Industrial Revolution - the first time you could probably live on your own separate from the family collective...)
Still, when the President of Iran says that there are no gays in Iran, would this be before or after the executions of persons associated with said acts?
And, as to who we heard this ridiculous notion of there being gays in Iran from...um, people who escaped? Amnesty International? Reports from Westerners within Iran? So many sources - so very FEW of them official state organs. What CAN that be saying about the state of affairs in Iran?
(having said this, the witch trial of Larry Craig indicates it ain't all that much better in the US - yes, I know he's repugnant - however, what he did was NOT illegal in Minnesota, and I would just LOVE to see the State's charges stick...especially given that catty investigator's official report (which, to me, casts the cop in a much bitchier and gayer role than Mr. Craig...)).